The Scriptures teach that human beings have a spirit/soul that is capable of suffering everlasting punishment.

The background and purpose of the Old Testament book of Habakkuk reminds us of God’s providential activity among the nations.

What is the “one baptism” of Ephesians 4:5?

An account in the Old Testament book of Nehemiah serves as a remarkable example of divine providence.

So-called “psychics” claim to have mystical powers, such as predicting what will eventually occur in one’s future. Do they really?

A comparison of 1 Peter 1:22 and Acts 2:38 amplifies the meaning of “obedience to the truth.”

A commonly asked question is this: “Who made God?” Some ask the query sincerely. Others frame it cynically. The answer is the same in both cases.

Why do most modern translations use the word baptize, an anglicized Greek word, rather than translating the Greek word into English?

Does Ecclesiastes 1:4 prove that the earth will abide forever?

The Old Testament prophet Haggai instructs us on what is really important — and what is not.

For centuries bees have been the objects of careful study by scientists. They are amazing creatures indeed (the bees that is), bearing the imprint of divine design in so many ways.

We recognize that suicide is wrong, but what if a child takes his own life?

This article addresses a sectarian argument that attempts to justify sprinkling as a substitute for immersion.

Did Jesus contradict himself as he approached the ordeal of the crucifixion? Some critics so allege, but what are the facts?

Are angels ministering to Christians today?

In the book of Proverbs, Solomon examines wisdom versus foolishness. Along the way, he describes several kinds of fools. This article addresses three of these.

May the guilty person in a divorce because of fornication remarry?

Some religious folks assume that this passage teaches that salvation is given upon the basis of faith alone — without additional acts of obedience. This is a tragic mistake.

Some point to Genesis 1:1-2 as a biblical basis for the Gap Theory. Yet a brief study of the grammar of this passage shows there is no such basis.

Critics of the Bible allege that the apostle Matthew made a mistake when he suggested “Judea” was “beyond the Jordan” (Mt. 19:1). Is there any way to legitimately exonerate the apostle from this charge? Study this problem with us.